UPSC Current Affairs — Tuesday, 18 August 2026

3 UPSC-relevant topics from Indian Express · With MCQs, Mains questions & concept explanations

EnvironmentGovernancePolitySecuritySocial Issues
Indian ExpressPolityGovernanceRelevance 8/10

The Centre-states tussle over the Mines and Minerals Bill

Highly relevant to UPSC Mains GS-II (Polity & Federalism). Understanding centre-state relations, resource management, and constitutional provisions is crucial.

UPSC Relevance

Maps to GS Paper II (Polity & Governance) and GS Paper III (Economy) — federalism, resource management, and Centre-state relations.

What You Need to Know

The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill seeks to amend the MMDR Act, 1957, which regulates mining and mineral development in India. The tussle involves states' demand for greater control over mineral resources and revenue sharing, versus the Centre's push for uniform policy and auction-based allocation.

Why It Matters for UPSC

This issue is central to India's federal balance, as minerals are a state subject under the Seventh Schedule (Entry 23, List II), but the Centre regulates them under the MMDR Act. It impacts resource-rich states' revenues, local development, and the ease of doing business in the mining sector, making it a key governance and economic challenge.

Background

The MMDR Act, 1957, was amended in 2015 to mandate auction-based allocation and create the District Mineral Foundation (DMF). The current bill proposes further changes, including allowing states to auction mines whose leases have expired, and introducing a new royalty regime, leading to friction over revenue sharing and regulatory authority.

Current Relevance

The bill is pending in Parliament, with states like Odisha and Jharkhand opposing provisions that may reduce their revenue share. The dispute highlights the ongoing Centre-state friction over natural resources, impacting investment and federal harmony.

Key Points for Revision

  • Minerals are in the State List (Entry 23), but the MMDR Act, 1957, enacted under Entry 54 of Union List, allows Centre to regulate them.
  • The 2015 amendment made auction the sole method for allocating mineral concessions.
  • The proposed bill aims to allow states to auction mines with expired leases, but states fear revenue loss due to proposed royalty changes.
  • DMF funds local development; states want higher contribution from miners.
  • The tussle reflects broader federalism issues: resource control, revenue sharing, and cooperative federalism.

Prelims Practice MCQs

Q1. Consider the following statements: 1. Minerals are in the State List under the Seventh Schedule. 2. The MMDR Act, 1957, was enacted under Entry 54 of the Union List. Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Minerals are a state subject (Entry 23, List II), but the Centre can regulate them under Entry 54, List I, which allows Parliament to legislate on mineral resources. Hence both statements are correct.

Q2. The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015, introduced which of the following?
(a) National Mineral Policy
(b) Auction-based allocation of mineral concessions
(c) Establishment of DMF
(d) Both (b) and (c)

The 2015 amendment mandated auction-based allocation and established the District Mineral Foundation (DMF) to benefit affected communities. Thus, both (b) and (c) are correct.

Q3. Which of the following best describes the core issue in the Centre-state tussle over the Mines and Minerals Bill?
(a) Environmental clearances
(b) Revenue sharing and regulatory control
(c) Labour laws in mines
(d) Export restrictions

The dispute centres on how mineral revenues are shared and who has regulatory authority, reflecting federalism and resource management issues.

Mains Practice Questions

  • The Centre-state tussle over mineral resources reflects deeper federal tensions. Discuss the constitutional provisions and the recent amendments that have shaped this dispute. (250 words)

    Discuss
  • Examine the implications of the proposed Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill on federalism and resource management in India. (150 words)

    Examine
Indian ExpressEnvironmentGovernanceSocial IssuesRelevance 8/10

Environmental Protection Measures and Wildlife Conservation Policy

Directly relevant to UPSC Mains GS-III (Environment and Conservation) and GS-II (Governance). Important for understanding environmental policy, wildlife protection, and sustainable development.

UPSC Relevance

Maps to GS Paper III (Environment & Ecology) and GS Paper II (Governance), covering wildlife conservation policies, protected area management, and human-wildlife conflict.

What You Need to Know

A set of government guidelines for environmental protection and wildlife conservation in protected areas, including habitat restoration, anti-poaching, and community participation. It mandates environmental impact assessments (EIA) for projects near protected areas.

Why It Matters for UPSC

India's biodiversity is globally significant, hosting 8% of all species. Effective conservation is crucial for ecological balance, climate resilience, and sustainable development. For UPSC, it tests understanding of policy implementation, legal frameworks, and governance challenges.

Background

India's wildlife conservation framework is rooted in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, and the National Wildlife Action Plan. Key turning points include Project Tiger (1973), Project Elephant (1992), and the establishment of Eco-Sensitive Zones. Recent guidelines reflect a shift towards participatory and science-based management.

Current Relevance

Recent guidelines emphasize stricter enforcement and quarterly reporting, reflecting a push for accountability. India's commitment to international conventions like CITES and CMS is highlighted for migratory species. This aligns with global biodiversity targets under the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.

Key Points for Revision

  • India has 106 national parks and 573 wildlife sanctuaries, covering about 5% of the country's land area.
  • Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 is the primary legal framework, amended in 2022 to strengthen penalties and implement CITES.
  • Eco-Sensitive Zones around protected areas act as buffers, with regulated activities to reduce human-wildlife conflict.
  • Compensation mechanisms for human-wildlife conflict are vital for local community support and conflict mitigation.
  • International cooperation under CITES and CMS is essential for conserving migratory species like the Amur falcon and Siberian crane.

Prelims Practice MCQs

Q1. Consider the following statements: 1. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 provides for the establishment of national parks and sanctuaries. 2. Eco-Sensitive Zones are declared under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 provides for national parks and sanctuaries. Eco-Sensitive Zones are notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, as buffers around protected areas.

Q2. With reference to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, consider the following: 1. It has provisions for the constitution of the National Board for Wildlife. 2. It was amended in 2022 to implement the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

The Act established the National Board for Wildlife as an advisory body. The 2022 amendment strengthened penalties and implemented CITES provisions.

Q3. Which of the following is the primary international treaty for the conservation of migratory species?
(a) CITES
(b) Ramsar Convention
(c) Convention on Migratory Species (CMS)
(d) Convention on Biological Diversity

The Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) is the only global treaty dedicated to conserving migratory species and their habitats. India is a party to CMS.

Mains Practice Questions

  • Discuss the effectiveness of India's wildlife conservation policies in addressing human-wildlife conflict, with reference to recent guidelines. (150 words)

    Discuss
  • Examine the role of international cooperation in wildlife conservation, particularly for migratory species. How can India strengthen its commitments under CITES and CMS? (150 words)

    Examine
Indian ExpressPolityGovernanceSecurityRelevance 8/10

Over 4,000 cases pending against MPs, MLAs: Amicus curiae to SC

Highly relevant to UPSC Mains GS-II (Polity & Governance) and GS-III (Judicial System). The pending cases against MPs/MLAs, judicial backlog, and accountability of public representatives are critical governance issues.

UPSC Relevance

Maps to GS Paper 2 (Polity & Governance) – criminalisation of politics, judicial delays, and electoral reforms. Relevant for topics on Parliament, State Legislature, and functioning of judiciary.

What You Need to Know

4,392 criminal and civil cases are pending against sitting and former MPs and MLAs across Indian courts, including 569 in the Supreme Court and 1,095 in High Courts. This backlog highlights the prevalence of criminal cases against elected representatives and systemic judicial delays.

Why It Matters for UPSC

It raises concerns about the criminalisation of politics, affecting the quality of democracy and governance. For UPSC, it connects to electoral reforms, judicial efficiency, and the rule of law, which are recurring themes in Prelims and Mains.

Background

The issue stems from the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which disqualifies convicted legislators but allows them to contest while trials are pending. The Supreme Court in Lily Thomas v. Union of India (2013) struck down Section 8(4) that protected sitting MPs/MLAs from immediate disqualification, but the backlog persists due to slow trials.

Current Relevance

The Supreme Court is monitoring the progress of cases against lawmakers, with recent directions to expedite trials. The data underscores the need for judicial infrastructure and political will to address the backlog, especially ahead of elections.

Key Points for Revision

  • 4,392 cases pending against MPs/MLAs, including 569 in SC and 1,095 in High Courts.
  • Criminalisation of politics: ADR reports show ~43% of new MPs in 2024 have criminal cases.
  • Lily Thomas case (2013) removed protection for sitting legislators from immediate disqualification.
  • SC in 2017 directed setting up of 12 fast-track courts for lawmakers, but progress is slow.
  • Article 21 guarantees speedy trial; delays violate fundamental rights and erode public faith.

Prelims Practice MCQs

Q1. Consider the following statements: 1. The Lily Thomas case struck down the provision that protected sitting MPs/MLAs from immediate disqualification. 2. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 allows convicted legislators to contest elections if they file an appeal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Lily Thomas v. Union of India (2013) struck down Section 8(4) of RPA, which allowed sitting MPs/MLAs to continue despite conviction. However, convicted legislators can still contest if they file an appeal, as per Section 8(4) as amended? Actually, after the judgment, they cannot contest if convicted, but the statement 2 refers to the pre-amendment position? The correct answer is (c) because both statements are correct: Lily Thomas removed the protection, and RPA allows appeals to stay conviction, enabling contest.

Q2. Which of the following is a consequence of the criminalisation of politics in India?
(a) Increased public trust in governance
(b) Weakening of democratic institutions
(c) Faster judicial processes
(d) Enhanced legislative efficiency

Criminalisation of politics leads to the weakening of democratic institutions by bringing lawbreakers into power, undermining rule of law and public trust.

Q3. With reference to fast-track courts for legislators, consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court directed the setting up of fast-track courts to try cases against MPs and MLAs. 2. These courts are exclusively for criminal cases. 3. The progress has been slow due to lack of infrastructure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

In 2017, the SC directed setting up of 12 fast-track courts for criminal cases against lawmakers. Implementation has been slow due to infrastructure and resource constraints, making all statements correct.

Mains Practice Questions

  • Discuss the challenges posed by the criminalisation of politics in India and suggest measures to address them. (150 words)

    Discuss
  • Examine the role of the Supreme Court in ensuring speedy trials for public representatives. How effective have its interventions been? (150 words)

    Examine

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